Hãy nhập câu hỏi của bạn vào đây, nếu là tài khoản VIP, bạn sẽ được ưu tiên trả lời.
1) Ta có:\(\overrightarrow{AB}+\overrightarrow{DE}-\overrightarrow{DB}+\overrightarrow{BC}=\overrightarrow{AE}+\overrightarrow{BC}=\overrightarrow{AC}+\overrightarrow{CE}+\overrightarrow{BE}+\overrightarrow{EC}\)
\(=\overrightarrow{AC}+\overrightarrow{BE}+\overrightarrow{CE}+\overrightarrow{EC}=\overrightarrow{AC}+\overrightarrow{BE}\left(đpcm\right)\)2) a) Ta có: \(\overrightarrow{AD}+\overrightarrow{BE}+\overrightarrow{CF}=\overrightarrow{AE}+\overrightarrow{ED}+\overrightarrow{BF}+\overrightarrow{FE}+\overrightarrow{CD}+\overrightarrow{DF}\)\(=\overrightarrow{AE}+\overrightarrow{BF}+\overrightarrow{CD}+\overrightarrow{ED}+\overrightarrow{DF}+\overrightarrow{FE}\)
\(=\overrightarrow{AE}+\overrightarrow{BF}+\overrightarrow{CD}\left(đpcm\right)\)
b) Ta có: \(\overrightarrow{AB}+\overrightarrow{CD}=\overrightarrow{AD}+\overrightarrow{DB}+\overrightarrow{CB}+\overrightarrow{BD}\)
\(=\overrightarrow{AD}+\overrightarrow{CB}+\overrightarrow{DB}+\overrightarrow{BD}=\overrightarrow{AD}+\overrightarrow{CB}\left(đpcm\right)\)c) \(\overrightarrow{AB}-\overrightarrow{CD}=\overrightarrow{AB}-\overrightarrow{BD}\)
\(\overrightarrow{AB}+\overrightarrow{DC}=\overrightarrow{AB}+\overrightarrow{DB}\)
Ta có: \(\overrightarrow{AB}+\overrightarrow{DC}=\overrightarrow{AB}+\overrightarrow{DB}+\overrightarrow{BC}\) ( đề bài bị lỗi gì à ?? :v ) hay do mình =))
bài 1
a CO-OB=BA
<=.> CO = BA +OB
<=> CO=OA ( LUÔN ĐÚNG )=>ĐPCM
b AB-BC=DB
<=> AB=DB+BC
<=> AB=DC(LUÔN ĐÚNG )=> ĐPCM
Cc DA-DB=OD-OC
<=> DA+BD= OD+CO
<=> BA= CD (LUÔN ĐÚNG )=> ĐPCM
d DA-DB+DC=0
VT= DA +BD+DC
= BA+DC
Mà BA=CD(CMT)
=> VT= CD+DC=O
\(\overrightarrow{NC}=2\overrightarrow{ND}=2\overrightarrow{NC}+2\overrightarrow{CD}\Rightarrow\overrightarrow{NC}=2\overrightarrow{DC}\Rightarrow\overrightarrow{CN}=2\overrightarrow{CD}\)
a.
\(\overrightarrow{DM}=\overrightarrow{DC}+\overrightarrow{CM}=\overrightarrow{AB}+\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{CB}=\overrightarrow{AB}-\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{AD}\)
\(\overrightarrow{MN}=\overrightarrow{MC}+\overrightarrow{CN}=\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{BC}+2\overrightarrow{CD}=-2\overrightarrow{AB}+\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{AD}\)
b.
\(\left\{{}\begin{matrix}\overrightarrow{AC}=\overrightarrow{AB}+\overrightarrow{AD}\\\overrightarrow{BD}=\overrightarrow{BA}+\overrightarrow{AD}=-\overrightarrow{AB}+\overrightarrow{AD}\end{matrix}\right.\)
\(\Rightarrow\left\{{}\begin{matrix}\overrightarrow{AB}=\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{AC}-\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{BD}\\\overrightarrow{AD}=\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{AC}+\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{BD}\end{matrix}\right.\)
\(\Rightarrow\overrightarrow{MN}=-2\left(\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{AC}-\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{BD}\right)+\dfrac{1}{2}\left(\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{AC}+\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{BD}\right)=-\dfrac{3}{4}\overrightarrow{AB}+\dfrac{5}{4}\overrightarrow{BD}\)
Xét ΔBAD có BI là đường trung tuyến
nên \(\overrightarrow{BI}=\dfrac{1}{2}\left(\overrightarrow{BA}+\overrightarrow{BD}\right)\)
=>\(\overrightarrow{BI}=\dfrac{1}{2}\left(\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{2}{3}\overrightarrow{BC}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{2}\left(\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{2}{3}\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{2}{3}\overrightarrow{AC}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{2}\left(\dfrac{5}{3}\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{2}{3}\overrightarrow{AC}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot\dfrac{1}{3}\left(5\overrightarrow{BA}+2\overrightarrow{AC}\right)=\dfrac{1}{6}\left(5\overrightarrow{BA}+2\overrightarrow{AC}\right)=\dfrac{5}{6}\left(\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{2}{5}\overrightarrow{AC}\right)\)
\(\overrightarrow{BM}=\overrightarrow{BA}+\overrightarrow{AM}\)
\(=\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{2}{5}\overrightarrow{AC}\)
=>\(\overrightarrow{BI}=\dfrac{5}{6}\cdot\overrightarrow{BM}\)
=>B,I,M thẳng hàng
Cách 1: Dùng định lý Menelaus đảo:
Từ đề bài, ta có \(\dfrac{BD}{BC}=\dfrac{2}{3}\), \(\dfrac{MC}{MA}=\dfrac{3}{2}\), \(\dfrac{IA}{ID}=1\)
\(\Rightarrow\dfrac{BD}{BC}.\dfrac{MC}{MA}.\dfrac{IA}{ID}=1\)
Theo định lý Menelaus đảo, suy ra B, I, M thẳng hàng.
Cách 2: Dùng vector
Ta có \(\overrightarrow{BI}=\dfrac{1}{2}\left(\overrightarrow{BA}+\overrightarrow{BD}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{1}{2}.\dfrac{2}{3}\overrightarrow{BC}\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{1}{3}\overrightarrow{BC}\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{6}\left(3\overrightarrow{BA}+2\overrightarrow{BC}\right)\)
Lại có \(\overrightarrow{BM}=\dfrac{MC}{AC}\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{MA}{AC}\overrightarrow{BC}\)
\(=\dfrac{3}{5}\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{2}{5}\overrightarrow{BC}\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{5}\left(3\overrightarrow{BA}+2\overrightarrow{BC}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{6}{5}.\dfrac{1}{6}\left(3\overrightarrow{BA}+2\overrightarrow{BC}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{6}{5}\overrightarrow{BI}\)
Vậy \(\overrightarrow{BM}=\dfrac{6}{5}\overrightarrow{BI}\), suy ra B, I, M thẳng hàng.
Câu 1:
\(\overrightarrow{AM}=\overrightarrow{AB}+\overrightarrow{BM}\)
\(=\overrightarrow{AB}+\dfrac{2}{3}\overrightarrow{BC}\)
\(=\overrightarrow{AB}+\dfrac{2}{3}\left(\overrightarrow{BA}+\overrightarrow{AC}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{3}\overrightarrow{AB}+\dfrac{2}{3}\overrightarrow{AC}\)
