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Lời giải
Theo đề bài thì \(p=\frac{a+b+c}{2}\Rightarrow p-a=\frac{a+b+c}{2}-a=\frac{b+c-a}{2}\)
Tương tự: \(p-b=\frac{c+a-b}{2};p-c=\frac{a+b-c}{2}\)
Ta cần c/m: \(\frac{2}{b+c-a}+\frac{2}{c+a-b}+\frac{2}{a+b-c}\ge2\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)\)
Ta có: \(VT=\left(\frac{1}{b+c-a}+\frac{1}{c+a-b}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{c+a-b}+\frac{1}{a+b-c}\right)+\left(\frac{1}{a+b-c}+\frac{1}{b+c-a}\right)\)
\(\ge\frac{4}{2c}+\frac{4}{2a}+\frac{4}{2b}=2\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)^{\left(đpcm\right)}\)
Ta có:\(p-a=\frac{a+b+c}{2}-a=\frac{b+c-a}{2}\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{p-a}=\frac{2}{b+c-a}\)
Tương tự ta có:
\(\frac{1}{p-b}=\frac{2}{a+c-b}\)
\(\frac{1}{p-c}=\frac{2}{a+b-c}\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{p-a}+\frac{1}{p-b}+\frac{1}{p-c}=2\left(\frac{1}{a+c-b}+\frac{1}{b+c-a}+\frac{1}{a+b-c}\right)\)
Áp dụng bất đẳng thức Cauchy-Schwarz dạng engel ta có:
\(\frac{1}{b+c-a}=\frac{\left(1+1-1\right)^2}{b+c-a}\ge\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}-\frac{1}{a}\)
Tương tự,ta có:
\(\frac{1}{a+b-c}\ge\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}-\frac{1}{c}\)
\(\frac{1}{a+c-b}\ge\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{c}-\frac{1}{b}\)
Cộng vế theo vế ta được:
\(\frac{1}{p-a}+\frac{1}{p-b}+\frac{1}{p-c}\ge2\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)^{đpcm}\)
Áp dụng BĐT \(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}\ge\frac{4}{x+y}\)với mọi x,y>0
Ta có: \(\frac{1}{p-a}+\frac{1}{p-b}\ge\frac{4}{2p-a-b}=\frac{4}{c}\)
Tương tự \(\frac{1}{p-b}+\frac{1}{p-c}\ge\frac{4}{a}\)
\(\frac{1}{p-c}+\frac{1}{p-a}\ge\frac{4}{b}\)
\(\Rightarrow2\left(\frac{1}{p-a}+\frac{1}{p-b}+\frac{1}{p-c}\right)\ge4\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{p-a}+\frac{1}{p-b}+\frac{1}{p-c}\ge2\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)\)
Do p là nửa chu vi tam giác nên \(2p=a+b+c\)
Ta có bổ đề sau: \(\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}\ge\frac{4}{x+y}\Leftrightarrow\frac{x+y}{xy}\ge\frac{4}{x+y}\Leftrightarrow\left(x+y\right)^2\ge4xy\)
\(\Leftrightarrow x^2+2xy+y^2\ge4xy\Leftrightarrow x^2-2xy+y^2\ge0\Leftrightarrow\left(x-y\right)^2\ge0\)(luôn đúng)
Áp dụng vào bài toán:
\(\frac{1}{p-a}+\frac{1}{p-b}\ge\frac{4}{p-a+p-b}=\frac{4}{2p-a-b}=\frac{4}{c}\)
Tương tự: \(\frac{1}{p-b}+\frac{1}{p-c}\ge\frac{4}{a},\)\(\frac{1}{p-c}+\frac{1}{p-a}\ge\frac{4}{b}\)
\(\Rightarrow2\left(\frac{1}{p-a}+\frac{1}{p-b}+\frac{1}{p-c}\right)\ge\frac{4}{a}+\frac{4}{b}+\frac{4}{c}=4\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{p-a}+\frac{1}{p-b}+\frac{1}{p-c}\ge2\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)\)(đpcm)
Dấu "=" xảy ra khi a=b=c.
a) Áp dụng BĐT \(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}\ge\frac{4}{a+b}\) ta có:
\(\frac{1}{p-a}+\frac{1}{p-b}\ge\frac{4}{2p-a-b}=\frac{4}{a+b+c-a-b}=\frac{4}{c}\left(p=\frac{a+b+c}{2}\right)\)
Tương tự rồi cộng theo vế:
\(2VT\ge\frac{4}{a}+\frac{4}{b}+\frac{4}{c}=2VP\Leftrightarrow VT\ge VP\)
Dấu "=" khi \(a=b=c\)
b)sai đề
\(\left(1+\frac{a}{b}\right)\left(1+\frac{b}{c}\right)\left(1+\frac{c}{a}\right)=8\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{\left(a+b\right)\left(c+b\right)\left(a+c\right)}{abc}=8\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{\left(a+b\right)^2\left(c+b\right)^2\left(a+c\right)^2}{a^2b^2c^2}=64\)
Ta có
\(\left(a+b\right)^2\ge4ab;\left(c+b\right)^2\ge4cb;\left(a+c\right)^2\ge4ac\)
\(\frac{\left(a+b\right)^2\left(c+b\right)^2\left(a+c\right)^2}{a^2b^2c^2}\ge64\)
Dấu "=" xảy ra khi và chỉ khi \(a=b=c\)=> Đó là tam giác đều
Ta có: \(\left(1+\frac{a}{b}\right)\left(1+\frac{b}{c}\right)\left(1+\frac{c}{a}\right)=8\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{a+b}{b}.\frac{b+c}{c}.\frac{a+c}{c}=8\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{\left(a+b\right)\left(b+c\right)\left(c+a\right)}{abc}=8\)
\(\Rightarrow\left(a+b\right)\left(b+c\right)\left(c+a\right)=8abc\)
\(\Rightarrow a^2b+a^2c+b^2c+ab^2+ac^2+bc^2+2abc=8abc\)
\(\Rightarrow a^2b+a^2c+b^2c+ab^2+ac^2+bc^2-6abc=0\)
\(\Rightarrow\left(ab^2-2abc+ac^2\right)+\left(a^2b-2abc+bc^2\right)+\left(a^2c-2abc+b^2c\right)=0\)
\(\Rightarrow a\left(b^2-2bc+c^2\right)+b\left(a^2-2ac+c^2\right)+c\left(a^2-2ab+b^2\right)=0\)
\(\Rightarrow a\left(b-c\right)^2+b\left(a-c\right)^2+c\left(a-b\right)^2=0\)(1)
Vì a, b, c là độ dài các cạnh của tam giác nên a, b, c > 0 (2)
Do đó \(\Rightarrow\hept{\begin{cases}a\left(b-c\right)^2\ge0\\b\left(a-c\right)^2\ge0\\c\left(a-b\right)^2\ge0\end{cases}}\)(3)
Từ (1), (2), (3) \(\Rightarrow\left(b-c\right)^2=\left(a-c\right)^2=\left(a-b\right)^2=0\)
\(\Rightarrow\left(b-c\right)=\left(a-c\right)=\left(a-b\right)=0\)
\(\Rightarrow a=b=c\)
Vậy a, b, c là độ dài ba cạnh của một tam giác đều
Link https://lazi.vn/edu/exercise/cho-a-b-c-la-do-dai-3-canh-cua-mot-tam-giac-va-p-la-nua-chu-vi-chung-minh-1-p-a-1-p-b-1-p-c-21-a-a-b-1-c
Ta có
\(1+\frac{b}{a}=\frac{a+b}{a}\ge2\frac{\sqrt{ab}}{a}\)
\(1+\frac{c}{b}\ge2\frac{\sqrt{bc}}{b}\)
\(1+\frac{a}{c}\ge2\frac{\sqrt{ac}}{c}\)
Nhân vế theo vế ta được
\(\left(1+\frac{b}{a}\right)\left(1+\frac{c}{b}\right)\left(1+\frac{a}{c}\right)\ge8\frac{\sqrt{ab.bc.ca}}{abc}=8\)
Dấu = xảy ra khi a = b = c hay tam giác ABC đều
áp dụng BĐT 1/x+1/y>=4/x+y ấy