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\(\left(a+b+c\right)\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)=1\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}=\frac{1}{a+b+c}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}=\frac{1}{a+b+c}-\frac{1}{c}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(a+b\right)\left(b+c\right)\left(c+a\right)=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow a+b=0\Leftrightarrow a=-b\)
\(\Rightarrow a^{23}+b^{23}=-b^{23}+b^{23}=0\)
Vậy \(\left(a^{23}+b^{23}\right)\left(a^{1995}+c^{1995}\right)=0\)
1. Ta có : \(\left(\frac{1}{a}-\frac{1}{b}\right)^2\ge0\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}\ge\frac{2}{ab}\)
Tương tự : \(\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge\frac{2}{bc}\); \(\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge\frac{2}{ac}\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ac}\). Dấu " = " xảy ra \(\Leftrightarrow\)a = b = c
\(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}=3\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ac}\right)=9\)
\(9\le3\left(\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\right)\)\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge3\)
Dấu " = " xảy ra \(\Leftrightarrow\)a = b = c = 1
\(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}=7\)\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ac}\right)=49\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2.\frac{a+b+c}{abc}=49\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}=49\)
ta có a+b+c=0 => a=-b-c, b=-a-c, c=-a-b
thay vào A ta được
A=(1-(b+c)/b)(1-(a+c)/c)(1-(a+b)/a)
=(1-1-c/b)(1-1-a/c)(1-1-b/a)
=(-c/b)(-a/c)(-b/a)
=(-abc)/abc
=-1
bạn Nguyễn Thị Lan Hương làm đúng rồi, mk lm cách khác nhé:
BÀI LÀM
\(a+b+c=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\)\(\hept{\begin{cases}a+b=-c\\b+c=-a\\c+a=-b\end{cases}}\)
\(A=\left(1+\frac{a}{b}\right)\left(1+\frac{b}{c}\right)\left(1+\frac{c}{a}\right)\)
\(=\frac{a+b}{b}.\frac{b+c}{c}.\frac{c+a}{a}\)
\(=\frac{-c}{b}.\frac{-a}{c}.\frac{-b}{b}=-1\)
Ta có : \(\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)^2=49\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{ac}+\frac{1}{bc}\right)=49\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{c+b+a}{abc}\right)=49\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+0=49\)(vì a + b + c = 0)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}=49\)
Vậy ...
áp dụng tính chất của dãy tỉ số bằng nhau ta có
\(\frac{a+b-c}{c}=\frac{b+c-a}{a}=\frac{a+c-b}{b}=\frac{a+b-c+b+c-a+a+c-b}{a+b+c}=1\)
\(\Rightarrow\hept{\begin{cases}a+b=2c\\b+c=2a\\a+c=2b\end{cases}\Rightarrow a=b=c}\)thay vào P ta có P=8