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Đặt \(A=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{20}+...+\frac{1}{x\left(x+1\right)}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
\(=\frac{1}{1.2}+\frac{1}{2.3}+\frac{1}{3.4}+\frac{1}{4.5}+...+\frac{1}{x\left(x+1\right)}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
\(=1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{5}+...+\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{x+1}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
\(=1-\frac{1}{x+1}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
\(\Rightarrow\)x+1=4026
x=4026-1
x=4025
Vậy x=4025.
\(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{20}+...+\frac{1}{x\left(x+1\right)}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
=> \(\frac{1}{1.2}+\frac{1}{2.3}+\frac{1}{3.4}+\frac{1}{4.5}+...+\frac{1}{x\left(x+1\right)}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
=> \(1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{5}+...+\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{x+1}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
=> \(1-\frac{1}{x+1}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
=> \(\frac{1}{x+1}=\frac{2015}{4026}\Rightarrow x+1=\frac{4026}{2015}\Rightarrow x=\frac{2011}{2015}\)
![](https://rs.olm.vn/images/avt/0.png?1311)
\(\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{20}+\frac{1}{30}+...+\frac{1}{x\left(x+1\right)}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
=> \(\frac{1}{2\cdot3}+\frac{1}{3\cdot4}+\frac{1}{4\cdot5}+\frac{1}{5\cdot6}+...+\frac{1}{x\left(x+1\right)}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
=> \(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+...+\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{x+1}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
=> \(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{x+1}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
=> \(\frac{1}{x+1}=\frac{1}{2}-\frac{2011}{4026}=\frac{1}{2013}\)
=> x + 1 = 2013 => x = 2012
Trả lời:
\(\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{20}+\frac{1}{30}+...+\frac{1}{x.\left(x+1\right)}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{2.3}+\frac{1}{3.4}+\frac{1}{4.5}+\frac{1}{5.6}+...+\frac{1}{x.\left(x+1\right)}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{6}+...+\frac{1}{x}-\frac{1}{x+1}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{x+1}=\frac{2011}{4026}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{x+1}=\frac{1}{2013}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow x+1=2013\)
\(\Leftrightarrow x=2012\)
Vậy \(x=2012\)
![](https://rs.olm.vn/images/avt/0.png?1311)
![](https://rs.olm.vn/images/avt/0.png?1311)
Huhuhu,các bạn giải nhanh giúp mik nha,mik đang cần rất gấp đó ! T^T
Dễ lắm:)
Ta có: \(\frac{1}{176}+\frac{1}{336}+\frac{1}{546}+...+\frac{1}{3416}+\frac{1}{4026}\)
\(=\frac{1}{11.16}+\frac{1}{16.21}+\frac{1}{21.26}+...+\frac{1}{56.61}+\frac{1}{61.66}\)
\(=\frac{1}{5}\cdot\left(\frac{5}{11.16}+\frac{5}{16.21}+\frac{5}{21.26}+...+\frac{5}{56.61}+\frac{5}{61.66}\right)\)
\(=\frac{1}{5}\cdot\left(\frac{1}{11}-\frac{1}{16}+\frac{1}{16}-\frac{1}{21}+\frac{1}{21}-\frac{1}{26}+...+\frac{1}{56}-\frac{1}{61}+\frac{1}{61}-\frac{1}{66}\right)\)
\(=\frac{1}{5}\cdot\left(\frac{1}{11}-\frac{1}{66}\right)\)
\(=\frac{1}{5}\cdot\frac{5}{66}=\frac{1}{66}\)
![](https://rs.olm.vn/images/avt/0.png?1311)
![](https://rs.olm.vn/images/avt/0.png?1311)
trung bình cộng là :
4026/2 = 2013 vậy số lớn hơn là 2014 đúng thì **** tớ nhá
![](https://rs.olm.vn/images/avt/0.png?1311)
2 số chẵn liên tiếp bao giờ cũng hơn kém nhau 2 đơn vị. => Hiệu 2 số đó là 2 đơn vị.
Số lớn là : (4026 + 2) : 2 = 2014
Đ/số: 2014
số lẻ giữa 2 số đó là 4026:2=2013
vậy số lớn là 2013+1=2014
![](https://rs.olm.vn/images/avt/0.png?1311)
Lời giải:
$(2013\times 10-8052\times 2-4026):(13\times 12+6)+17\times 11$
$=(2013\times 10-2013\times 4\times 2-2013\times 2):(13\times 12+6)+17\times 11$
$=2013\times (10-4\times 2-2):(13\times 12+6)+17\times 11$
$=2013\times 0:(13\times 12+6)+17\times 11$
$=0+17\times 11=17\times 11=187$