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Ta có: \(0\le a\le b\le1\Rightarrow\hept{\begin{cases}a-1\ge0\\b-1\ge0\end{cases}}\)
\(\Rightarrow\left(a-1\right)\left(b-1\right)\ge0\Leftrightarrow ab-a-b+1\ge0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow ab+1\ge a+b\Leftrightarrow\frac{c}{ab+1}\le\frac{c}{a+b}\)(Vì \(c\ge0\))
Mà \(\frac{c}{a+b}\le\frac{c+c}{a+b+c}=\frac{2c}{a+b+c}\)(Vì \(c\ge0\))
\(\Rightarrow\frac{c}{ab+1}\le\frac{2c}{a+b+c}\)
Chứng minh tương tự: \(\frac{b}{bc+1}\le\frac{2b}{a+b+c};\frac{c}{ab+1}\le\frac{2c}{a+b+c}\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{a}{bc+1}+\frac{b}{bc+1}+\frac{c}{ab+1}\le\frac{2\left(a+b+c\right)}{a+b+c}=2\left(đpcm\right)\)
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1)Từ đề bài:
`=>a^2+4b+4+b^2+4c+4+c^2+4a+4=0`
`<=>(a+2)^2+(b+2)^2+(c+2)^2=0`
`<=>a=b=c-2`
`ab+bc+ca=abc`
`<=>1/a+1/b+1/c=1`
`<=>(1/a+1/b+1/c)^2=1`
`<=>1/a^2+1/b^2+1/c^2+2/(ab)+2/(bc)+2/(ca)=1`
`<=>1/a^2+1/b^2+1/c^2=1-(2/(ab)+2/(bc)+2/(ca))`
`a+b+c=0`
Chia 2 vế cho `abc`
`=>1/(ab)+1/(bc)+1/(ca)=0`
`=>2/(ab)+2/(bc)+2/(ca)=0`
`=>1/a^2+1/b^2+1/c^2=1-0=1`
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Bài làm:
Ta có: \(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}=0\)
=> \(\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)^2=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ca}\right)=0\) (1)
Mà \(\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ca}\), cách CM như sau:
\(\left(\frac{1}{a}-\frac{1}{b}\right)^2\ge0\Leftrightarrow\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}\ge\frac{2}{ab}\)
Tương tự: \(\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge\frac{2}{bc}\) ; \(\frac{1}{c^2}+\frac{1}{a^2}\ge\frac{2}{ca}\)
Cộng vế 3 BĐT trên lại ta sẽ được: \(\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}\ge\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ca}\)
Thay vào (1) ta được:
\(0=\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}+\frac{1}{c^2}+2\left(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ca}\right)\ge3\left(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ca}\right)\)
=> \(\frac{1}{ab}+\frac{1}{bc}+\frac{1}{ca}\le0\)
Dấu "=" xảy ra khi: \(a=b=c\)
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Bạn tham khảo ở đây nhé
https://olm.vn/hoi-dap/detail/49527613309.html
ở đây nữa:
https://hoc24.vn/hoi-dap/question/32718.html
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1
\(M=\frac{a}{a+b}+\frac{b}{b+c}+\frac{c}{c+a}>\frac{a}{a+b+c}+\frac{b}{a+b+c}+\frac{c}{a+b+c}=1\)
\(M=\frac{a}{a+b}+\frac{b}{b+c}+\frac{c}{c+a}< \frac{a+c}{a+b+c}+\frac{b+a}{b+a+c}+\frac{c+b}{a+b+c}=2\)
=> M ko là số tự nhiên
2
\(a+b+c=0\)
\(\Rightarrow\left(a+b+c\right)^2=0\)
\(\Rightarrow a^2+b^2+c^2+2\left(ab+bc+ca\right)=0\)
Do \(a^2+b^2+c^2\ge0\Rightarrow ab+bc+ca\le0\)
3
\(\left(x+y\right)\cdot35=\left(x-y\right)\cdot2010=xy\cdot12\)
\(\Rightarrow35x+35y=2010x-2010y\)
\(\Rightarrow35-2010x=2010y-35y\)
\(\Rightarrow-175x=-245y\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{x}{y}=\frac{245}{175}=\frac{7}{5}\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{x}{7}=\frac{y}{5}\)
Đặt \(\frac{x}{7}=\frac{y}{5}=k\)
\(\Rightarrow x=7k;y=5k\)
\(\Rightarrow\left(5k+7k\right)\cdot35=35k^2\cdot12\)
\(\Rightarrow k=k^2\Rightarrow k=1\left(k\ne0\right)\)
Vậy \(x=7;y=5\)
bài 2 chưa thuyết phục lắm, nếu \(a^2+b^2+c^2+2\left(ab+bc+ca\right)=0\) thì \(ab+bc+ca\ge0\) vẫn đúng, lẽ ra phải là \(ab+bc+ca=-\frac{\left(a^2+b^2+c^2\right)}{2}\le0\) *3*
Ta có:
\(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}+\dfrac{1}{c}=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(\dfrac{1}{a}+\dfrac{1}{b}+\dfrac{1}{c}\right)^2=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{1}{a^2}+\dfrac{1}{b^2}+\dfrac{1}{c^2}+2.\left(\dfrac{1}{ab}+\dfrac{1}{ac}+\dfrac{1}{bc}\right)=0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow2.\left(\dfrac{1}{ab}+\dfrac{1}{ac}+\dfrac{1}{bc}\right)=-\left(\dfrac{1}{a^2}+\dfrac{1}{b^2}+\dfrac{1}{c^2}\right)\)
Mà \(\dfrac{1}{a^2}+\dfrac{1}{b^2}+\dfrac{1}{c^2}>0\)
\(\Rightarrow2\left(\dfrac{1}{ab}+\dfrac{1}{ac}+\dfrac{1}{bc}\right)< 0\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\dfrac{1}{ab}+\dfrac{1}{ac}+\dfrac{1}{bc}< 0\left(đpcm\right)\)
(Dấu"=" không xảy ra bạn nhé)
Thanks bạn