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A = 1/1x2 +1/2x3 + 1/3x4 + 1/4x5 + 1/5x6 + .... + 1/y x n = 39/40
A = 1 - 1/2 + 1/2 - 1/3 + 1/3 - 1/4 + 1/4 - 1/5 + 1/5 - 1/6 + ... + 1/y - 1/n = 39/40
A = 1 - 1/n = 39/40
A = 1 - 39/40 = 1/n
A = 1/40 = 1/n
=> n = 40
Ta có : \(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+...+\frac{1}{n}\) = \(\frac{39}{40}\)
= \(\frac{1}{1x2}+\frac{1}{2x3}+\frac{1}{3x4}+...+\frac{1}{ax\left(a+1\right)}=\frac{39}{40}\) ( có : n = a x ( a+1) )
=\(\frac{1}{1}-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+...+\frac{1}{a}-\frac{1}{a+1}=\frac{39}{40}\)
=\(\frac{1}{1}-\frac{1}{a+1}=\frac{39}{40}\)
( ta triệt tiêu tất cả các phân số ở giữa ) VD: trừ 1/2 rồi lại cộng 1/2 thì còn lại 0
\(\frac{1}{a+1}=\frac{1}{1}-\frac{39}{40}\)
\(\frac{1}{a+1}=\frac{1}{40}\)
a+1 = 40
a = 40 - 1
a = 39
vì a x (a+1) = n
nên 39 x 40 = n
n = 1560
\(ĐS:1560\)
CHÚC BẠN HỌC GIỎI
khong the co n vi 40 khong bang so tu nhien lien tiep nao ca
bài này ra 1560 , cô mk giải đó , viết cách làm ra ngại lém
\(\Rightarrow A=\frac{1}{1\times2}+\frac{1}{2\times3}+\frac{1}{3\times4}+\frac{1}{4\times5}+\frac{1}{5\times6}+\frac{1}{6\times7}\)
\(\Rightarrow A=1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{6}-\frac{1}{7}\)
\(\Rightarrow A=1-\frac{1}{7}\)
\(\Rightarrow A=\frac{6}{7}\)
nhớ tick nha!!!!!!!!!!!!!
A = 1/1*2 +1/2*3 +1/3*4 +1/4*5+ 1/5*6 +1/6*7
A = 1/1 - 1/2 +1/2 -1/3 +1/3 -1/4 +1/4 -1/5 +1/5 -1/6 +1/6 -1/7
A = 1 - 1/7
A= 6/7
\(\left(1-\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{6}-\frac{1}{12}-\frac{1}{20}-\frac{1}{30}\right)\cdot X=\frac{11}{6}\)
\(< =>\left(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{12}-\frac{1}{60}\right)\cdot X=\frac{11}{6}\)
\(< =>\left(\frac{30}{60}-\frac{5}{60}-\frac{1}{60}\right)\cdot X=\frac{11}{6}\)
\(< =>\left(\frac{30-5-1}{60}\right)\cdot X=\frac{11}{6}\)
\(< =>\frac{2}{5}\cdot X=\frac{11}{6}\)
\(< =>X=\frac{11}{6}:\frac{2}{5}\)
\(< =>X=\frac{55}{12}\)
CHUC BAN HOC TOT >.<
\(x+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{20}+\frac{1}{30}=\frac{47}{42}\)
\(x+\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{20}+\frac{1}{30}\right)=\frac{47}{42}\)
\(x+A=\frac{47}{42}\)
ta thấy :
\(A=\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{20}+\frac{1}{30}\)
\(A=\frac{1}{1\cdot2}+\frac{1}{2\cdot3}+\frac{1}{3\cdot4}+\frac{1}{4\cdot5}+\frac{1}{5\cdot6}\)
\(A=\frac{1}{1}-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{6}\)
\(A=\frac{1}{1}-\frac{1}{6}\)
\(A=\frac{5}{6}\)
vậy \(x+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{20}+\frac{1}{30}=\frac{47}{42}\)
hay \(x+\frac{5}{6}=\frac{47}{42}\)
\(x=\frac{47}{42}-\frac{5}{6}\)
\(x=\frac{2}{7}\)
\(x+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{20}+\frac{1}{30}=\frac{47}{42}\)
\(x=\frac{47}{42}-\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{20}+\frac{1}{30}\right)\)
\(x=\frac{47}{42}-\frac{5}{6}\)
\(x=\frac{2}{7}.\)
\(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{20}+\frac{1}{30}+\frac{1}{42}\)
\(=\frac{1}{1\cdot2}+\frac{1}{2\cdot3}+\frac{1}{3\cdot4}+\frac{1}{4\cdot5}+\frac{1}{5\cdot6}+\frac{1}{6\cdot7}\)
\(=1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{5}+\frac{1}{5}-\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{6}-\frac{1}{7}\)
\(=1-\frac{1}{7}\)
\(=\frac{6}{7}\)
1/2+1/6+1/12+1/20+1/30+1/42
=1/1×2+1/2×3+1/3×4+1/4×5+1/5×6+1/6×7
=1-1/2+1/2-1/3+1/3-1/4+1/4-1/5+1/5-1/6+1/6-1/7
=1-1/7
=6/7.
Tích mk nha
Ta có: 1/2=1/1*2 m*m+1=n
Nên 1/1*2 + 1/2*3 + 1/3*4 +... +1/m*m+1
(1-1/2) + (1/2-1/3) + ... (1/m-1/m+1)
Triệt tiêu đi còn1- 1/m+1 =39/40
Suy ra 1/m+1 = 1/40
Vậy m=39
n = 39* (39+1) = 39*40= 1560